Read 'em in order and I'll give you back your grandmother.
The message of Mark 12:18-25 is that the marriage covenants made on earth will no longer be binding in heaven. I think it is helpful to point out a few things in order to understand the context (there’s that word again) of the passage. The Sadducees were a religious sect that stood in conflict with the Pharisees. They considered only the books of Moses to be authoritative, they did not believe in angels or demons, and they rejected the doctrine of the resurrection from the dead. In addition, they were wealthy and aristocratic, and were largely in favor of the Roman occupation. None of this sat well with the Pharisees, of course. But the biggest issue between them was the resurrection (Acts 23:7-10). It seemed plain to the Sadducees that death was obviously the end of the road.
When Jesus came onto the scene, everybody got a little nervous. Since it was assumed that the Messiah would liberate the Jews from Roman oppression, false Messiahs often attempted to cause uprisings and riots which always failed and only served to strain the relationship between Rome and the Jews. The Sadducees saw that their prestige with the Roman government was threatened by Jesus, so they sought to discredit Him by pointing out what they thought was a logical contradiction between the doctrine of the resurrection and the law.
The Sadducees assumed that marriages would continue after death if there was a resurrection. Therefore, they asked Jesus to explain how the a levirate marriage (Deut. 25:5-6) would work in the afterlife. Jesus responds by saying that they were mistaken - not about the resurrection, but about marriage. Marriage covenants made before the resurrection will no longer be valid or necessary after it.
I have only heard one LDS explanation (that I remember) for this passage, and it doesn’t make much sense to me at all. This is that Jesus taught no one would BECOME married after the resurrection. This, of course, leaves open the possibility that any marriages from before might still be binding. But if this is the case, then He never really answered their question. And I certainly don’t think anyone would have said, “He had answered them well…”
The city of Corinth was notorious for sexual indulgence. When the church was established there, two extremes immediately formed among the congregation. First, there were those who thought they were now free to commit any sin they wished. Paul dealt with this mindset in chapters 5-6. But the second group preached celibacy, believing that any kind of sexuality was immoral and ungodly. So when the congregation wrote to Paul, they asked him whether or not it was okay to get married (1st Cor. 7:1). They probably asked other questions as well, since he kinda jumps around a bit. All of chapter 7 is his answer.
The first thing that stands out about 1st Cor. 7 is Paul’s statement that he is single (v. 8). If marriage is required in order to spend eternity with God, why is Paul, an Apostle, single? Furthermore, why would he encourage others to be single (v. 7, 8, 26, 27, 38)? Instead, he puts marriage on the same level with circumcision and uncircumcision, which he says are both “nothing.”
We know that the other Apostles were married (1st Cor. 9:5), but the fact remains that Paul was not, and he wanted others to be like him in that sense.
Second, he says in verse 25 that the Lord gave him no commandment concerning whether virgins should marry. Why would the Lord not command marriage, unless it isn’t essential to our eternal destination? It seems to me that God would have to be awfully uncaring if he wasn’t willing to command His children to do something that is required in order to enter His presence for eternity (D&C 132:4).
But what if marriage is not a part of the real plan of salvation? Then Paul’s attitude makes perfect sense. Only those who need the intimate companionship of a spouse, or who lack self-control, should get married. The rest have been given the gift of singleness.
So, where does that leave us? Marriage was instituted by God (Gen. 2:20-25), but is only intended for this earthly life (Mark 12: 18-25). It is to be honored among all (Heb. 13:4), but not everyone needs to do it (1st Cor. 7). What, then, was God’s purpose in instituting marriage? I think Rev. 19:7-9 gives us the answer. Earthly marriage was intended to be a reflection of a greater reality, which is the relationship between Christ and His church. We are told here that when Christ returns, Jesus (the Lamb) will marry His bride, which is the church (John 3:29; 2nd Cor. 11:2; Eph. 5:23; Rev. 21:9-10). God instituted marriage as a means of pointing to Christ, which is why marriage is to be honored. This is also why the all of the rules in the Mosaic law concerning sexuality - except one, for the purpose of cleanliness (Lev. 15:19-24) - are about sexual relationships instead of sexual acts (Lev. 18, for example). As long as the institution of marriage is widely known, it will accomplish this purpose; therefore, not everyone needs to participate in it. Marriages between men and women are only for this life because those who are in Christ are destined for a greater marriage in eternity. What I see now is a shadow on the wall; what I will see is the form that made it (1st Cor. 13:12).
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